I was reading John chapter 2 a while ago. I would just like to share my thoughts on some things I read.
The word this
In verse 19 Jesus says
“destroy this temple and in three days I will raise it up”.
Then verse 21 says that he was speaking about the “temple of his body”. (I’m a programmer. I want my periods outside the quote 
… and they don’t look bad with the font I am using! Hmmm.)
Notice that he used the word “this” to refer to his body.
He also used the word “this” when he said,
“thou art Peter and upon this rock I will build my church”
in another passage of the scripture.
A common explanation as to why evangelical Christians believe that the rock in that passage of scripture refers to Jesus is because rock is used to refer to him in other passages of scripture, even in the old testament; and that the Greek for Peter is “small rock” while the Greek for rock in that passage is “boulder”.
But can we also use John 2:19 as another support fot this teaching? Maybe we can!
God’s omniscience and man’s free will
Then this:
“Now when he was in Jerusalem at the passover, in the feast day, many believed in his name, when they saw the miracles which he did. But Jesus did not commit himself unto them, because he knew all men, and needed not that any should testify of man: for he knew what was in man.” - John 2:23-25
But
What is in man?
I tried to look for cross-references.
I found Deuteronomy 31:21
“…And when many evils and troubles have come upon them, this song shall confront them as a witness (for it will live unforgotten in the mouths of their offspring). For I know what they are inclined to do even today, before I have brought them into the land that I swore to give.”
I remember that an example similar to this one was given in an article I read before explaining God’s omniscience in relation to man’s free will:
A father who knows the character of his child knows that his child will grab a cookie if he put a plate full of them on the table; but that does not mean that the child did not have the choice NOT to grab one.
We have free will but we are more inclined to do the evil than the good. And our creator knows that.
What do you think?
This, I think:
“Our definition of free will” might not match “our definition of omniscience”.
But that does not mean that “God’s definition of free will” does not match “God’s definition of omniscience”.
Our task then is to find out God’s definition of omniscience and free will and see if they do/don’t match.
Who is the God I am referring to? The God whose non-existence makes knowledge impossible of course!
